TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT Two Marks Questions With Answers 2014


Anna University, Chennai

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SRINIVASAN ENGINEERING COLLEGE, PERAMBALUR DEPARTMENT OF AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING

NAME OF THE SUBJECT: TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT

YEAR / SEM: IV / VII

UNIT- I

INTRODUCTION

PART – A (2 MARKS)

1. Define Total Quality?

TQM is an enhancement to the traditional Way of doing business. It is the art of managing the whole to achieve excellence. It is defined both a philosophy and a set

of guiding principles that represent the foundation of a continuously improving Organization. It is the application of quantitative methods and human resources to improve all the processes within an organization and exceed customer needs now and in the future. It integrates fundamental management techniques, existing improvement efforts, and technical tools under a disciplined approach.

2. Define Quality?

Quality = Performance x Expectations

3. What are the Dimensions of Quality?

•Features

•Conformance

•Reliability

•Durability

•Service

•Response

•Aesthetics

•Reputation

4. Give the Basic Concepts of TQM?

•A committed and involved management to provide long-term

Top-to-bottom organizational support.

•An unwavering focuses on the customer, both internally and externally.

•Effective involvement and utilization of the entire work force.

•Continuous improvement of the business and production process.

•Treating suppliers as partners.

•Establish performance measures for the processes.

5. Give the Principles of TQM?

•Constancy of purpose: short range and long range objectives aligned

•Identify the customer(s); Customer orientation

•Identification of internal and external customers

•Continuous improvement

•Workflow as customer transactions

•Empower front-line worker as

leader •Quality is everybody’s

business

•For a service industry, some elements of quality are:

- empathy

- trust; i.e. expertise, integrity, courtesy

- responsiveness

- tangible product attractiveness (curb appeal)

- reliability, on time, no interruptions

- Customer orientation to child care services, a marketing perspective

- Barriers that exist to a customer orientation

6. Give the Obstacles associated with TQM Implementation?

•Lack of management commitment

•Inability to change organizational culture •Improper planning

•Lack of continuous training and education

•Incompatible organizational structure and isolated individuals and departments

•Ineffective measurement techniques and lack of access to data and results. •Paying inadequate attention to internal and external customers.

•Inadequate use of empowerment and teamwork.

7. Give the Analysis Techniques for Quality Costs?

i. Trend Analysis ii. Pareto Analysis

8. Define Quality Costs?

Quality Costs are defined as those costs associated with the non achievement of product or service quality as defined by the requirements established by the organization and its contracts with customers and society.

9. Give the primary categories of Quality cost?

• Preventive cost category

• Appraisal cost category

• Internal failure cost category

• External failure cost category

10. Give the typical cost bases? •Labor

•Production

•Unit

•Sales

11. How will you determine the optimum cost?

•Make comparison with other organizations

•Optimize the individual categories

•Analyze the relationships among the cost categories

12. State the Quality Improvement Strategy?

•Reduce failure costs by problem solving

•Invest in the “right” prevention activities

•Reduce appraisal costs where appropriate and in a statistically sound manner

•continuously evaluate and redirect the prevention effort to gain further Quality improvement.

13. Define Quality Planning?

A quality plan sets out the desired product qualities and how these are assessed and define

the most significant quality attributes. It should define the quality assessment process. It should set out which organizational standards should be applied and, if necessary, define new standards.

14. Give the Objectives of TQM?

To develop a conceptual understanding of the basic principles and methods associated with TQM;

•To develop an understanding of how these principles and methods have been put into effect in a variety of organizations;

•To develop an understanding of the relationship between TQM principles and the theories and models studied in traditional management;

•To do the right things, right the first time, every time.

15. What is needed for a leader to be effective?

To be effective, a leader needs to know and understand the following:

•People, paradoxically, need security and independence at the same time.

•People are sensitive to external rewards and punishments and yet are also strongly self- motivated.

•People like to hear a kind word of praise.

•People can process only a few facts at a time; thus, a leader needs to keep things simple.

•People trust their gut reaction more than statistical data.

•People distrust a leader’s rhetoric if the words are inconsistent with the leader’s actions.

16. What is the important role of senior management?

Listening to internal and external customers and suppliers through visits, focus groups and surveys.

♣ Communication.

♣ To drive fear out of the organization, break down barriers, remove system roadblocks, anticipate and minimize resistance to change and in general, change the culture.

17. What are the general duties of a quality council?

(i)Develop, with input from all personnel, the core values, vision statement, mission statement, and quality policy statement.

(ii)Develop the strategic long-term plan with goals and the annual quality improvement program with objectives.

(iii)Create the total education and training plan.

(iv)Determine and continually monitor the cost of poor quality.

(v)Determine the performance measures for the organization, approve those for the functional areas, and monitor them.

(vi)Continually, determine those projects that improve the processes, particularly those that affect external and internal customer satisfaction.

(vii)Establish multifunctional project and departmental or work group teams and monitor their progress.

(viii)Establish or revise the recognition and reward system to account for the new way of doing business.

18. What does a typical meeting agenda contain after establishing the TQM?

Progress report on teams

♣ Customer satisfaction report

♣ Progress on meeting goals

♣ Recognition dinner

♣ Benchmarking report

19. What are the various quality statements?

Vision Statement Mission Statement Quality Policy Statement

20. Give the basic steps to strategic quality planning?

•Customer needs

•Customer positioning •Predict the future •Gap analysis •Closing the gap •Alignment

•Implementation

21. What is a quality policy?

The Quality Policy is a guide for everyone in the organization as to how they should provide products and service to the customers. The common characteristics are

•Quality is first among equals.

•Meet the needs of the internal and external customers.

•Equal or exceed the competition.

•Continually improve the quality.

•Include business and production practices.

•Utilize the entire work force.


UNIT- II

TQM PRINCIPLES

PART – A (2 MARKS)

1. What is a mission statement?

The mission statement answers the following questions: who we are, who are the customers, what we do, and how we do it.

2. What is a vision statement?

The vision statement is a declaration of what an organization should look like five to ten years in a future.

3. What are the important factors that influenced purchases?

•Performance

•Features

•Service

•Warranty

•Price

•Reputation

4. Give the need for a feedback in an organization?

•Discover customer dissatisfaction.

•Discover relative priorities of quality.

•Compare performance with the competition.

•Identify customer’s needs.

•Determine opportunities for improvement.

5. List the tools used for feedback? •Comment cards

•Surveys

•Focus

groups

•Toll-free

telephone lines

•Customer visits

•Report cards •The internet

•Employee feedback

•American Customer Satisfaction Index

6. What are the activities to be done using customer complaints?

- Investigate customer’s experience both positive and negative, and then acting on it promptly.

- Develop procedures for complaint resolution.

- Analyze complaints.

- Work to identify process and material variations and then eliminate the root cause.

- When a survey response is received, a senior manager should contact the

- Customer and strive to resolve the concern.

- Establish customer satisfaction measures and constantly monitor them.

- Communicate complaint information, as well as the results of all investigations and solutions, to all people in the organization.

- Provide a monthly complain report to the quality council .

- Identify customer’s expectations beforehand rather than afterward through

- Complaint analysis.

7. What are the elements of customer service?

•Organization

•Customer care

•Communicatio n •Front-line people

•Leadership

8. Define Customer Retention?

Customer retention represents the activities that produce the necessary customer satisfaction that creates customer loyalty, which actually improves the bottom line. It is the nexus between the customer satisfaction and the bottom line.

9. Define Employee Involvement?

Employee involvement is a means to better meet the organization’s goals for quality and productivity at all levels of an organization.

10. State Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

*Survival

*Security

*Social

*Esteem *Self- actualization

11. State Frederick Herzberg’s Two-factor theory?

Herzberg found that people were motivated by recognition, responsibility, achievement and the work itself.

12. What does an employee want?

•Interesting work

•Appreciation

•Involvem ent •Job security

•Good pay

•Promotion/growth

•Good working conditions •Loyalty to

employees

•Help with personal problems •Tactful discipline

13. What are the concepts to achieve a motivated work force?

a. Know thyself

b. Know your employees

c. Establish a positive attitude d. Share the goals e. Monitor progress

f. Develop interesting work g. Communicate effectively h. Celebrate success

14. Define Empowerment?

Empowerment means invest people with authority. Its purpose is to tap the enormous reservoir of creativity and potential contribution that lies within every

worker at all levels. Empowerment is an environment in which people have the ability, the confidence, and the commitment to take the responsibility and ownership to improve

the process and to initiate the necessary steps to satisfy customer requirements within well- defined boundaries in order to achieve organizational values an goals.

15. What are the three conditions necessary to create the empowered environment?

•Everyone must understand the need for change.

•The system needs to change for the new paradigm

•The organization must enable its employees.

16. What are the types of teams?

•Process improvement team

•Cross-functional team •Natural work teams

•Self-directed/self-managed work teams

17. What are the characteristics of successful teams?

•Sponsor

•Team charter

•Team composition

•Training

•Ground rules

•Clear

objectives

•Accountabilit

y

•Well-defined decision procedures •Resources

•Trust

•Effective problem solving •Open communications

•Appropriate leadership

•Balanced participation

•Cohesiveness

18. What are the decision-making methods?

•Non decision

•Unilateral decision

•Handclasp decision

•Minority-rule

decision •Majority- rule decision

•Consensus

19. What are the stages of team development?

•Forming

•Storming

•Norming

•Performing

•Adjourning

20. Give some common team problems?

•Floundering

•Overbearing participants

•Dominating

participants •Reluctant participants

•Unquestioned acceptance of opinions as facts

•Rush to accomplish

•Attribution

•Discounts and “plops”

•Wanderlust: digression and tangents

21. What are the common barriers to team progress?

Insufficient training

•Incompatible rewards and compensation

•First-line supervisor resistance

•Lack of planning

•Lack of management support

•Access to information systems

•Lack of union support

22. Give the steps involved in training process?

o Make everyone aware of what the training is all about.

o Get acceptance.

o Adapt the program.

o Adapt to what has been agreed upon.

23. Define Recognition and Reward?

Ø Recognition is a form of employee motivation in which the organization publicly acknowledges the positive contributions an individual or team has made to the success of the organization.

Ø Reward is something tangible to promote desirable behavior. Recognition and reward go together to form a system for letting people know they are valuable members of the organization.

24. What are the types of appraisal formats?

•Ranking

•Narrative

•Graphic

•Forced choice

25. What are the benefits of employee involvement?

Employee Involvement improves quality and increases productivity because

•Employees make better decisions

•Employees are more likely to implement and support decisions they had a part in making.

•Employees are better able to spot and pinpoint areas for improvement.

•Employees are better able to take immediate corrective action.

•Employee involvement reduces labor/management hassle by more effective communications and cooperation.

•Employee involvement increases morale by creating a feeling of belonging to the organization.

•Employees are better able to accept change because they control the work environment.

•Employees have an increased commitment to unit goals because they are involved.

26. What are the basic ways for a continuous process improvement?

•Reduce resources

•Reduce errors

•Meet or exceed expectations of downstream customers

•Make the process safer

•Make the process more satisfying to the person doing it.

27. What are the three components of the Juran Trilogy?

•Planning

•Control

•Improvement

28. What are the steps in the PDSA cycle?

The basic Plan-Do-Study-Act is an effective improvement technique.

♣ Plan carefully what is to be done

♣ Carry out the plan

♣ Study the results

♣ Act on the results by identifying what worked as planned and what didn’t.

29. What are the phases of a Continuous Process Improvement Cycle?

a) Identify the opportunity b) Analyze the process c) Develop the optimal solutions d) Implement e) Study the results f)Standardize the solution g) Plan for the future

30. Define 5S?

5S Philosophy focuses on effective work place organization and standardized work procedures. 5S simplifies your work environment, reduces waste and non-value activity while improving quality efficiency and safety.Sort – (Seiri) the first S focuses on eliminating unnecessary items from the workplace. Set In Order (Seiton) is the second of the 5Ss and focuses on efficient and effective storage methods. Shine: (Seiso) Once you have eliminated the clutter and junk that has been clogging your work areas and identified and located the necessary items, the next step is to thoroughly clean the work area.

Standardize: (Seiketsu) Once the first three 5S’s have been implemented, you should concentrate on standardizing best practice in your work area.

Sustain: (Shitsuke) This is by far the most difficult S to implement and achieve. Once fully implemented, the 5S process can increase morale, create positive impressions on customers, and increase efficiency and organization.

31. What is a Kaizen?

Kaizen is a Japanese word for the philosophy that defines management’s role in continuously encouraging and implementing small improvements involving everyone. It is the process of continuous improvement in small increments that make the process more efficient, effective, under control and adaptable.

32. What are the three key elements to a partnering relationship?

♣ Long-term commitment

♣ Trust

♣ Shared vision

33. What are the three types of sourcing?

Sole sourcing

Multiple sourcing single sourcing

34. What are the ten conditions for the selection and evaluation of suppliers?

I. The supplier understands and appreciates the management philosophy of the organization.

II. The supplier has a stable management system.

III. The supplier maintains high technical standards and has the capability of dealing with future technological innovations.

IV. The supplier can supply precisely those raw materials and parts required by the

purchaser, and those supplied meet the quality specifications.

V. The supplier has the capability to produce the amount of production needed or can attain that capability.

VI. There is no danger of the supplier breaching corporate secrets.

VII. The price is right and the delivery dates can be met. In addition, the supplier is easily accessible in terms of transportation and communication.

VIII. The supplier is sincere in implementing the contract provisions.

IX. The supplier has an effective quality system and improvement program such as

ISO/QS 9000.

X. The supplier has a track record of customer satisfaction and organization credibility.

35. What are the characteristics used to measure the performance of a particular process?

i. Quantity ii. Cost

iii. Time iv. Accuracy v. Function vi. Service vii. Aesthetics

36. Give the six basic techniques for presenting performance measures?

a) Time series graph b) Control chart

c) Capability index

d) Taguchi’s Loss Function e) Cost of poor quality

f) Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award

37. Give the usage of an effective recognition and reward system?

•Serves as a continual reminder that the organization regards quality and productivity as important.

•Offers the organization a visible technique to thank high achievers for outstanding performance.

•Provides employees a specific goal to work toward. It motivates them to improve the process.

•Boosts morale in the work environment by creating a healthy sense of competition among individuals and teams seeking recognition.

38. How will you improve the performance appraisal system?

•Use rating scales that have few rating categories.

•Require work team or group evaluations that are at least equal in emphasis to individual-focused evaluations.

•Require more frequent performance reviews where such reviews will have a dominant emphasis on future planning.

•Promotion decisions should be made by an independent administrative process that draws on current-job information and potential for the new job.

•Include indexes of external customer satisfaction in the appraisal process.

•Use peer and subordinate feedback as an index of internal customer satisfaction.

•Include evaluation for process improvement in addition to results.

39. What are the typical measurements frequently asked by managers and teams?

⌦ Human Resource

⌦ Customers

⌦ Production

⌦ Research & Development

⌦ Suppliers

⌦ Marketing/Sales

⌦ Administration


UNIT- III

STATISTICS PROCESS CONTROL

PART – A (2 MARKS)

1 Define Statistics?

Statistics is defined as the science that deals with the collection, tabulation, analysis, interpretation, and presentation of quantitative data.

2. What is a measure of central tendency?

A measure of central tendency of a distribution is a numerical value that describes the central position of the data or how the data tend to build up in the center. There are three measures in common in use in quality viz, the average, the median and the mode.

3. What is Measures of dispersion?

Measures of dispersion describe how the data are spread out or scattered on each side of the central value. The measures of dispersion used are range and standard deviation.

4. What is a normal curve?

The normal curve is a symmetrical, unimodal, bell-shaped distribution with the mean, median and mode having the same value.

5. What is the use of the control chart?

The control chart is used to keep a continuing record of a particular quality characteristic. It is a picture of process over time.

6. Give the objectives of the attribute charts?

• Determine the average quality level.

• Bring to the attention of management any changes in the average.

• Improve the product quality.

• Evaluate the quality performance of operating and management personnel.

• Determine acceptance criteria of a product before shipment to the customer.

7. Define Six Sigma Problem Solving Method?

Define - improvement opportunity with an emphasis on increasing customer satisfaction. Measure - determine process capability (Cp/ Cpk) & dpmo (defects per million opportunities).Analyze - identify the vital few process input variables that affect key product output variables (“Finding the knobs”).Improve - Make changes to process settings, redesign processes, etc. to reduce the number of defects of key output variables. Control - Implement process control plans, install real-time process monitoring tools, and standardize processes to maintain levels.

8. What are the new seven management tools?

i. Affinity Diagram

ii. Interrelationship Digraph iii. Tree Diagram

iv. Matrix Diagram

v. Prioritization Matrices

vi. Process Decision Program Chart vii. Activity Network diagram

9. Give the seven tools of quality?

•Pareto Diagram

•Process Flow Diagram

•Cause-and-Effect Diagram

•Check Sheets

•Histogram •Control Charts •Scatter Diagrams

10. Give the usage of C&E diagrams?

•Analyze actual conditions for the purpose of product or service quality improvement, more efficient use of resources, and reduced costs.

•Eliminate conditions causing nonconformities and customer complaints.

•Standardize existing and proposed operations.

•Educate and train personnel in decision-making and corrective-action activities.

11. Define Six Sigma?

Six-Sigma is a business process that allows organizations to drastically improve their bottom line by designing and monitoring every day business activities in ways that minimize waste and resources while increasing customer satisfaction. It is achieved through continuous process measurement, analysis & improvement.

12. What are the various histogram shapes?

* Symmetrical * Skewed right * Skewed left * Peaked * Flat * Bimodal * Plateau distribution * Comb distribution * Double peaked distribution

13. Differentiate Population & Sample?

Population represents the mathematical world and Sample represents the real world. A population frequency distribution is represented by a smooth curve whereas a sample frequency distribution is represented by a histogram.

14. Give the sources of variation?

Equipment

Material Environment Operator

15. Define Run chart?

A run chart is a very simple technique for analyzing the process in the development stage or, for that matter, when other charting techniques are not applicable.

16. Define Control chart?

Control chart is a means of visualizing the variations that occur in the central tendency and the dispersion of a set of observations. It is a graphical record of the quality of a particular characteristic.

17. What are the various patterns of scatter diagrams?

• Positive correlation

• Negative correlation

• No correlation

• Negative correlation may exist

• Correlation by stratification

• Curvilinear relationship

18. What is the procedure for constructing the tree diagram?

Choose an action oriented objective statement from the interrelationship diagram, affinity diagram, brainstorming, team mission statement, and so forth.

Using brainstorming, choose the major headings. Generate the next level by analyzing the major headings.

19. Give at least five standard formats of matrix diagram? L- shaped

T-shaped Y-shaped C-shaped X-shaped

20. What are the benefits of an activity network diagram? A

realistic timetable determined by the users.

Team members understand the role in the overall plan. Bottlenecks can be discovered and corrective action taken. Members focus on the critical tasks.


UNIT- IV

TQM TOOLS

PART – A (2 MARKS)

1. Define Benchmarking?

Benchmarking is a systematic method by which organizations can measure

themselves against the best industry practices. The essence of benchmarking is the process of borrowing ideas and adapting them to gain competitive advantage. It is a tool for continuous improvement.

2. Enumerate the steps to benchmark?

a) Decide what to benchmark

b) Understand current performance c) Plan

d) Study others

e) Learn from the data f) Use the findings

3. What are the types of benchmarking?

i. Internal

ii.Competitive iii.Process

4. What is a QFD?

Quality Function Deployment is a planning tool used to fulfill customer expectations. It is a disciplined approach to product design, engineering, and production and provides in-depth evaluation of a product.

5. What are the benefits of QFD?

i. Customer driven

ii. Reduces implementation time iii. Promotes teamwork

iv. Provides documentation

6. What are the steps required to construct an affinity diagram?

i. Phrase the objective ii. Record all responses iii. Group the responses

iv. Organize groups in an affinity diagram

7. What are the parts of house of quality?

i. Customer requirements

ii. Prioritized customer requirements iii. Technical descriptors

iv. Prioritized technical descriptors

v. Relationship between requirements and descriptors vi. Interrelationship between technical descriptors

8. How will you build a house of quality?

a) List customer requirements b) List technical descriptors

c) Develop a relationship matrix between WHATs and HOWs\

d) Develop an interrelationship matrix between HOWs e) Competitive assessments f) Develop prioritized customer requirements

g) Develop prioritized technical descriptors

9 .Define FMEA?

Failure Mode Effect Analysis is an analytical technique that combines the technology and experience of people in identifying foreseeable failure modes of a product or process and planning for its elimination.

10. What are the stages of FMEA?

1. Specifying possibilities a. Functions

b. Possible failure modes c. Root causes

d. Effects e. Detection/Prevention

2. Quantifying risk

a. Probability of cause b. Severity of effect

c. Effectiveness of control to prevent cause d. Risk priority number

3. Correcting high risk causes

a. Prioritizing work b. Detailed action c. Assigning action responsibility d. Check points on completion

4. Revaluation of risk

a. Recalculation of risk priority number

11. What are the goals of TPM?

The overall goals of Total Productive Maintenance, which is an extension of TQM are

i. Maintaining and improving equipment capacity ii. Maintaining equipment for life iii. Using support from all areas of the operation iv. Encouraging input from all employees v. Using teams for continuous improvement

12. Give the seven basic steps to get an organization started toward TPM?

a) Management learns the new philosophy

b) Management promotes the new philosophy

c) Training is funded and developed for everyone in the organization d) Areas of needed improvement are identified

e) Performance goals are formulated

f) An implementation plan is developed

g) Autonomous work groups are established

13. What are the major loss areas?

i. Planned downtime

ii. Unplanned downtime iii. Idling and minor stoppages iv. Slow-downs

v. Process nonconformities vi. Scrap

14. What are the generic steps for the development and execution of action plans in benchmarking?

“ Specify tasks.

“ Sequence tasks.

“ Determine resource needs. “ Establish task schedule.

“ Assign responsibility for each task. “ Describe expected results.

“ Specify methods for monitoring results.

15. What are the phases of QFD process? I.

Product planning

ii. Part development iii. Process planning iv. Production planning

16. What are the several types of FMEA?

Design FMEA

Process FMEA Equipment FMEA Maintenance FMEA

Concept FMEA

Service FMEA System

FMEA

Environment FMEA etc.

17. Define TPM?

Total = All encompassing by maintenance and production individuals

Working together.

Productive = Production of goods and services that meet or exceed customer’s

Expectations.

Maintenance = Keeping equipment and plant in as good as or better than the original

Condition at all times.


UNIT- V

QUALITY SYSTEMS

PART – A (2 MARKS)

1. Give the ISO 9000 Series of Standards?

• ISO 9000, “Quality Management and Quality Assurance Standards Guidelines for Selection and Use”.

• ISO 9001, “Quality Systems — Model for Quality Assurance in Design, Development, Production, Installation & Servicing”.

• ISO 9002, “Quality Systems — “Model for Quality Assurance in Production, Installation & Servicing”.

• ISO 9003, “Quality Systems — “Model for Quality Assurance in Final Inspection and

Test”.

• ISO 9004-1, “Quality Management and Quality System Elements — Guidelines”.

2. What is the need for ISO 9000?

ISO 9000 is needed to unify the quality terms and definitions used by

Industrialized nations and use terms to demonstrate a supplier’s capability of controlling its processes.

3. Give some other quality systems?

i. QS-9000

ii. TE-9000 iii. AS9000

4. Give the objectives of the internal audit?

a) Determine the actual performance conforms to the documented quality systems. b) Initiate corrective action activities in response to deficiencies. c) Follow up on

noncompliance items of previous audits.

d) Provide continued improvement in the system through feedback to management.

e) Cause the auditee to think about the process, thereby creating possible improvements.

5. What are the requirements of ISO 14001?

i. General requirements ii. Environmental policy iii. Planning iv. Implementation and operation v. Checking and corrective action vi. Management review

6. What are the benefits of ISO 14000? a.

Global

•Facilitate trade and remove trade barriers

•Improve environmental performance of planet earth

•Build consensus that there is a need for environment management and a common terminology for EMS.

b. Organizational

• Assuring customers of a commitment to environmental management

• Meeting customer requirements

• Maintaining a good public / community relations image

• Satisfying investor criteria and improving access to capital

• Obtaining insurance at reasonable cost

•Increasing market share that results from a competitive advantage •Reducing incidents that result in liability

•Improving defense posture in litigation

•Conserving input materials and energy

•Facilitating the attainment of permits and authorization

•Improving industry/government relations

7. What are the four elements for the checking & corrective action of ISO 14001?

a) Monitoring and measuring

b) Nonconformance and corrective and preventative action c) Records

d) EMS audit

8. What are the seven elements for the implementation & operations of ISO 14001?

a) Structure and responsibility

b) Training, awareness and competency c) Communication

d) EMS documentation

e) Documentation control f) Operational control

g) Emergency preparedness and response

9. What are the four elements for the planning of ISO 14001?

a) Environmental aspects

b) Legal and other requirements

c) Objectives and targets

d) Environmental Management Programs

10. Give the types of Organizational Evaluation Standards?

• Environmental Management System

• Environmental Auditing

• Environmental Performance Evaluation

11. Give the types of Product Evaluation Standards?

• Environmental Aspects in Product Standards

• Environmental Labeling

• Life-Cycle Assessment

12. Define Quality Audits?

Quality Audits examine the elements of a quality management system in order to evaluate how well these elements comply with quality system requirements.

13. Analyze TQM?

Total = Made up of the whole.

Quality = Degree of excellence a product or service provides. Management = Act, art or manner of handling, controlling, directing etc.

14. What are the benefits of ISO?

o Fewer on-site audit by customers. Increased market share.

o Improved quality, both internally and externally.

o Improve product and service quality levels from suppliers. Greater awareness of quality by employees.

o A documented formal systems. Reduced operating costs.

Ø Give the ISO 9001 requirements? Scope

o Normative Reference

Terms and Definitions

o Quality Management System Management Responsibility Resource Management Product Realization

o Measurement, Analysis & Improvement

15. What are the methods of actual audit?

i. Examination of documents ii. Observation of activities iii. Interviews

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Environmental Science and Engineering Questions Bank 2014


Anna University, Chennai

 Anna_University,_Chennai_logo

Question Bank (16 and 8 marks)

UNIT-I

1. a) Explain in detail the causes, effects and control measures of Deforestation b) Discuss the problems of fertilizers and pesticides of modern agriculture

2. a) Discuss the effects of dams on forests and tribal people

b) Discuss the various types of land degradation with its causes and solutions.

3. Write short notes on causes effects and control measures of soil erosion

4. Write short notes on environmental impacts of mining

5. Write short notes on renewable energy resources


UNIT-II

1. Explain in detail the structure and component of an eco system.

2. Explain the characteristic features and functions of forest eco system and aquatic eco system

3. Explain the characteristic features and functions of Grassland eco system and

Desert eco system

4. Write short notes on food chain and food web

5. Write short notes on ecological succession and ecological pyramids

6. Write short notes on i)Genetic diversity

ii) Species diversity

iii) Ecosystem diversity

7. Write short notes on threats to bio diversity

8. Write short notes on hotspots of biodiversity

9. Discuss India’s mega-diverse biodiversity

10. a)Explain the In-situ and Ex-situ conservation of biodiversity b) Discuss the values of Bio-diversity


UNIT-III

1. Explain in detail the causes and effects of air and water pollution

2. Explain in detail the causes and effects of marine and noise pollution

3. Write short notes on (i) Bhopal gas tragedy and (ii) Chernobyl disaster

4. Write short notes on Disaster management

5. What is an earth quake? Enumerate its effects. What measures should be taken to mitigate this disaster?

6. Explain in detail the causes, effects and control measures of NOISE and

THERMAL pollution.

7. Explain in detail the process of solid waste management


UNIT-IV

1. What is sustainable development? Discuss in brief the concept of sustainable

development.

2. What are waste lands? Name and discuss the various methods of waste land reclamation.

3. Write notes on (i) Global warming (ii)Ozone layer depletion (iii)Acid rain

4. Write notes on Water shed management

5. What is rain water harvesting? Name and discuss in brief the types of rain Water harvesting.

6. Write note on salient features of Environmental protection act and wild life protection act

7. Discuss the salient features of Forest act

8. Write note on salient features of water act and air act


UNIT-V

1. Explain the term population explosion. Enumerate its effects.

2. What is value education? Discuss the concept of value education.

3. Discuss in detail the role of Information technology in environmental management and human health.

4. Explain the activities of family welfare programme.

5. Discuss the problems, diagnosis and control of AIDS.

6. Write a note on women and child welfare.

2 2 0 4 – E L E M E N T S O F A E R O N A U T I C S Questions Bank 2014


Anna University, Chennai

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D E P A R T M E N T O F A E R O N A U T I C A L E N G I N E E R I N G A E 2 2 0 4 – E L E M E N T S O F A E R O N A U T I C S

Q U E S T I O N B A N K P A R T A

1. What are high lift devices? What has prompted their development?

2. What is the basic difference between a hot air balloon and an aircraft?

3. What is equivalent air speed? How is it related to true air speed?

4. What are the functions of ailerons in an aircraft?

5. Define Troposphere and temperature lapse rate.

6. Define aerodynamic center.

7. Enumerate the stiffener shapes used in aircraft fuselage shell.

8. What are the main advantages and disadvantages of composite materials for aircraft structures?

9. State the propellant burning configurations possible in solid propellant motors.

10. What are hypergolic propellants? Give an example.

11. Differentiate between anhedral and dihedral.

12. What do you mean by “Absolute ceiling”?

13. What is the purpose of elevator?

14. Enumerate the engine instruments.

15. Define ‘Air foil’.

16. What is ‘aerodynamic center’?

17. Explain the term ‘Empennage’.

18. State the uses of titanium alloys in aircraft industry.

19. Define ‘specific impulse’ of rockets.

20. What is cryogenic propellant? Give example.

21. Distinguish between air breathing propulsion and rocket propulsion.

22. What are the new t ypes of alloys used now-a-days for airframe construction of modern aircraft?

23. Name any four components of airframe of an airplane and mention their functions.

24. What is stratopause?

25. Define Mach number.

26. What are the general types of construction of an airplane structure?

27. What are the general considerations for the fuselage design of an airplane. Name any two.

28. What is the basic operating principle of a piston engine?

29. Define specific impulse of a rocket.

30. What is jet thrust?

31. Differentiate between biplane and monoplane.

32. State the two kinds of aircraft.

33. Differentiate between conventional control and powered control.

34. What are the basic instruments for fl ying?

35. Define ‘absolute altitude’.

36. Explain ‘Mach Number’.

37. Differentiate between Monocoque construction and semi-monocoque constrction.

38. Enumerate the composite materials.

39. What is ‘Ramjet’ engine?

40. What are the advantages and the disadvantages of rocket propulsion?

P A R T B

1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of monoplanes compared to biplanes?

2. Explain why swept back wing concept has been developed.

3. Discuss the advantages of carry through structures connecting cantilever wings.

4. Describe a Ramjet engine and compare its working principle with SCRAMJET

and turbojet engines.

5. Describe the major components of an aeroplane with a neat sketch and explain their functions.

6. Enumerate the basic instruments used for fl yi ng.

7. Describe the flight instruments measuring ATTITUDE of an aircraft.

8. Discuss the temperature variation with altitude of standard atmosphere and classify the atmospheric layers.

9. Derive the expressions relating the standard atmosphere values of pressure, densit y and temperature at any altitude in the troposphere with that of sea level values.

10. Describe an airfoil and explain its nomenclature.

11. Define center of pressure, coefficient of pressure and Mach number.

12. Express lift and drag of an airfoil in terms of normal and axial forces.

13. Explain how aeroplane wings are constructed and indicate the choice of materials for the main components.

14. Write a short note on composite materials and their applications to aircraft

Construction.

15. Discuss briefl y the choice of material for aircraft engine components.

16. Discuss the need for Alcladaluminumalloys for aircraft structures.

17. With a neat sketch explain the principle of operation of a turbo prop engine.

18. What is a cryogenic rocket engine? Explain

19. Explain in detail:

(i) Static stabilit y with example.

(ii) Dynamic stabilit y with example.

20. (i)Define standard atmosphere.

(ii) State the Bernoulli’s principle.

(iii) Explain its application of subsonic flow.

(iv) State the four forces acting on an aircraft inflight.

21. Define Lift (L), Drag (D) and Pitching moment (M).

22. State the points to be observed for pressure distribution on an aerofoil.

23. Enumerate the six factors of an ideal aerofoil.

24. Explain the t ypes of fuselage constructions with sketches.

25. Explain in detail about the fundamental designs on which the using

(i) Draw and indicate the common wing forms.

(ii) Enumerate the main structural parts of a wing.

26. Describe with a neat diagram, a basic hydraulic system with hand pump.

27. Describe the operation of turbojet engine with a neat diagram.

28. (i) State and classifications of rocket engines.

(ii) State the advantages and disadvantages of liquid propellants rocket engine over other t ypes.

29. Explain the operation of a solid of a solid propellant rocket motor with a neat diagram.

30. Create new airfoil profiles, new fuselage designs, gas turbine engine powered propulsion system and flight control systems.

31. (i) Discuss the classification of flight vehicles. Mention the criteria for classification.

(ii) What are the salient features of monologue construction of an airplane structure?

32. (i) Name any two basic instruments for fl ying. With illustrations explain their operating principle.

(ii) With neat sketch, explain the construction of a t ypical aircraft wing. Show allthe structural components of wing construction and mention the types of loads/stresses experienced by the structural members.

33. (i) What is international standard atmosphere? How are the various regions of atmosphere classified?

(ii) With neat illustration, describe how lift and drag are produced, when an airfoil is placed in a uniform air flow.

34. (i) Explain how pressure, temperature and altitude are related in the mathematical Representation of atmospheric propert y variations with altitude. (ii) Draw a t ypical sketch of an airfoil and identify the important terminology with respect to its geometrical features. Draw any two NACA airfoils and

35. Explain their nomenclature.

(i) Bring out the essential differences between piston t ype engines and jet engines for aircraft propulsion.

(ii) What are the applications of rockets? How are they classified?

36. (i) Explain how a propeller produces thrust for aircraft propulsion. (ii) What are the merits and limitations of turbojet engines?

AE2203 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS Questions Bank 2014


Anna University, Chennai

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SRINIVASAN ENGINEERING COLLEGE

DEPARTMENT OFAERONAUTICALENGINEERING QUESTION BANK

SUB CODE/NAME: AE2203 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS YEAR/SEM: II / IV

1. What is Hooke’s Law?

UNIT I

PART- A (2 Marks)

2. What are the Elastic Constants?

3. Define Poisson’s Ratio.

4. Define: Resilience, proof resilience and modulus of resilience.

5. Distinguish between rigid and deformable bodies.

6. Define stress and strain.

7. Define Shear stress and Shear strain.

8. Define elastic limit.

9. Define volumetric strain.

10. Define tensile stress and compressive stress.

11. Define young’s Modulus.

12. Define modulus of rigidity.

13. Define thermal stress.

PART- B (16 Marks)

1. A rod of 150 cm long and diameter 2.0cm is subjected to an axial pull of 20 KN. If the modulus of elasticity of the material of the rod is 2x 105 N/mm2 Determine 1. Stress 2. Strain

3. the elongation of the rod (16)

2. The extension in a rectangular steel bar of length 400mm and thickness 10mm is found to

0.21mm .The bar tapers uniformly in width from 100mm to 50mm. If E for the bar is 2x 105

N/mm2 ,Determine the axial load on the bar (16)

3. A rod of 250 cm long and diameter 3.0cm is subjected to an axial pull of 30 KN. If the modulus of elasticity of the material of the rod is 2x 105 N/mm2 Determine

1. Stress

2. Strain

3. the elongation of the rod (16)

4. Find the young’s modulus of a rod of diameter 30mm and of length 300mm which is subjected to a tensile load of 60 KN and the extension of the rod is equal to 0.4 mm

(16)

5. The extension in a rectangular steel bar of length 400mm and thickness 3mm is found be

0.21mm .The bar tapers uniformly in width from 20mm to 60mm E for the bar is 2x 105

N/mm2 Determine the axial load on the bar. (16)

6. The ultimate stress for a hollow steel column which carries an axial load of 2Mn is 500

N/mm2 .If the external diameter of the column is 250mm, determine the internal diameter

Take the factor of safety as 4.0 (16)


PART- A (2 Marks)

UNIT II

1. State the different types of supports.

2. What is cantilever beam?

3. Write the equation for the simple bending theory.

4. What do you mean by the point of contraflexure?

5. Define beam.

6. Define shear force and bending moment.

7. What is Shear stress diagram?

8. What is Bending moment diagram?

9. What are the types of load?

10. Write the assumption in the theory of simple bending.

11. What are the types of beams?

12. When will bending moment is maximum.

PART- B (16 Marks)

1. Three planks of each 50 x200 mm timber are built up to a symmetrical I section for a beam. The maximum shear force over the beam is 4KN. Propose an alternate rectangular section of the same material so that the maximum shear stress developed is same in both sections. Assume then width of the section to be 2/3 of the depth. (16)

2. A beam of uniform section 10 m long carries a udl of KN/m for the entire length and a concentrated load of 10 KN at right end. The beam is freely supported at the left end. Find the position of the second support so that the maximum bending moment in the beam is as minimum as possible. Also compute the maximum bending moment (16)

3. A beam of size 150 mm wide, 250 mm deep carries a uniformly distributed load of w kN/m over entire span of 4 m. A concentrated load 1 kN is acting at a distance of 1.2 m from the left support. If the bending stress at a section 1.8 m from the left support is not to exceed

3.25 N/mm2 find the load w. (16)

4. A cantilever of 2m length carries a point load of 20 KN at 0.8 m from the fixed end and another point of 5 KN at the free end. In addition, a u.d.l. of 15 KN/m is spread over the entire length of the cantilever. Draw the S.F.D, and B.M.D. (16)

5. A Simply supported beam of effective span 6 m carries three point loads of 30 KN, 25 KN and 40 KN at 1m, 3m and 4.5m respectively from the left support. Draw the SFD and BMD. Indicating values at salient points. (16)

6. A Simply supported beam of length 6 metres carries a udl of 20KN/m throughout its length and a point of 30 KN at 2 metres from the right support. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagram. Also find the position and magnitude of maximum Bending moment. (16)

7. A Simply supported beam 6 metre span carries udl of 20 KN/m for left half of span and two point loads of 25 KN end 35 KN at 4 m and 5 m from left support. Find maximum SF and BM and their location drawing SF and BM diagrams. (16)


UNIT III

PART-A (2 Marks)

1. Define torsional rigidity of the solid circular shaft.

2. Distinguish between closed coil helical spring and open coil helical spring

3. What is meant by composite shaft?

4. What is called Twisting moment?

5. What is Polar Modulus ?

6. Define: Torsional rigidity of a shaft.

7. What do mean by strength of a shaft?

8. Write down the equation for Wahl factor.

9. Define: Torsional stiffness.

10. What are springs? Name the two important types.

PART- B (16 Marks)

1. Determine the diameter of a solid shaft which will transmit 300 KN at 250 rpm. The maximum shear stress should not exceed 30 N/mm2 and twist should not be more than 10 in a shaft length 2m. Take modulus of rigidity = 1x 10 5 N/mm2. (16)

2. The stiffness of the closed coil helical spring at mean diameter 20 cm is made of 3 cm diameter rod and has 16 turns. A weight of 3 KN is dropped on this spring. Find the height by which the weight should be dropped before striking the spring so that the spring may be compressed by 18 cm. Take C= 8x104 N/mm2. (16)

3. It is required to design a closed coiled helical spring which shall deflect 1mm under an axial load of 100 N at a shear stress of 90 Mpa. The spring is to be made of round wire having shear modulus of 0.8 x 105 Mpa. The mean diameter of the coil is 10 times that of the coil wire. Find the diameter and length of the wire. (16)

4. A steel shaft ABCD having a total length of 2400 mm is contributed by three different

sections as follows. The portion AB is hollow having outside and inside diameters 80 mm and 50 mm respectively, BC is solid and 80 mm diameter. CD is also solid and 70 mm diameter. If the angle of twist is same for each section, determine the length of each portion and the total angle of twist. Maximum permissible shear stress is 50 Mpa and shear modulus 0.82 x 10 5 MPa (16)

5. The stiffness of close coiled helical spring is 1.5 N/mm of compression under a maximum load of 60 N. The maximum shear stress in the wire of the spring is 125 N/mm2. The solid length of the spring (when the coils are touching) is 50 mm. Find the diameter of coil, diameter of wire and number of coils. C = 4.5 (16)

PART-A (2 Marks)


UNIT IV

1. What are the advantages of Macaulay method over the double integration method, for finding the slope and deflections of beams?

2. State the limitations of Euler’s formula.

3. Define crippling load.

4. State Mohr’s theorem.

5. State any three assumption made in Euler’s column theory.

6. What are the different modes of failures of a column?

7. Write down the Rankine formula for columns.

8. What is effective or equivalent length of column?

9. Define Slenderness Ratio.

10. Define the terms column and strut.

PART- B (16 Marks)

1. A simply supported beam of 10 m span carries a uniformly distributed load of 1 kN/m over the entire span. Using Castigliano’s theorem, find the slope at the ends. EI = 30,000 kN/m2.

(16)

2. A 2m long cantilever made of steel tube of section 150 mm external diameter and10mm thick is loaded. If E=200 GN/m2 calculate (1) The value of W so that the maximum bending stress is 150 MN/m (2) The maximum deflection for the loading (16)

3. A beam of length of 10 m is simply supported at its ends and carries two point loads of

100 KN and 60 KN at a distance of 2 m and 5 m respectively from the left support. Calculate the deflections under each load. Find also the maximum deflection.

Take I = 18 X 108 mm4 and E = 2 X 105. (16)

4. i) A column of solid circular section, 12 cm diameter, 3.6 m long is hinged at both ends. Rankine’s constant is 1 / 1600 and σc = 54 KN/cm2. Find the buckling load.

ii) If another column of the same length, end conditions and rankine constant but of

12 cm X 12 cm square cross-section, and different material, has the same buckling load, find the value of σc of its material. (16)

5. A beam of length of 6 m is simply supported at its ends. It carries a uniformly distributed load of 10 KN/m as shown in figure. Determine the deflection of the beam at its mid-point and also the position and the maximum deflection. Take EI=4.5 X 108 N/mm2. (16)

clip_image002

6. An overhanging beam ABC is loaded as shown is figure. Determine the deflection of the beam at point C. Take I = 5 X 108 mm4 and E = 2 X 105 N/mm2. (16)

clip_image004

7. A cantilever of length 2 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 2.5 KN/m run for a length of 1.25 m from the fixed end and a point load of 1 KN at the free end. Find the deflection at the free end if the section is rectangular 12 cm wide and 24 cm deep and E=1 X 104 N/mm2

(16)

8. A cantilever of length 2m carries a uniformly distributed load 2 KN/m over a length of 1m from the free end, and a point load of 1 KN at the free end. Find the slope and deflection at the free end if E = 2.1 X 105 N/mm2 and I = 6.667 X 107 mm4 . (16)

9. Determine the section of a hollow C.I. cylindrical column 5 m long with ends firmly built in. The column has to carry an axial compressive load of 588.6 KN. The internal diameter of the column is 0.75 times the external diameter. Use Rankine’s constants.

a = 1 / 1600, σc = 57.58 KN/cm2 and F.O.S = 6. (16)


PART-A (2 Marks)

UNIT V

1. Distinguish between thick and thin cylinders.

2. Define Principal planes and principal stress.

3. Define: Thin cylinders. Name the stresses set up in a thin cylinder subjected to internal fluid pressure.

4. What is Mohr’s circle & name any the situations where it is used?

5. Define principal planes and principal stresses.

6. Draw Mohr’s Circle for given shear stress q.

7. What is the necessary condition for maximum shear stress?

8. Define Obliquity.

9. Define Strain energy and resilience.

10. Define proof resilience and modulus of resilience.

PART- B (16 Marks)

1. A Thin cylindrical shell 3 m long has 1m internal diameter and 15 mm metal thickness. Calculate the circumferential and longitudinal stresses induced and also the change in the dimensions of the shell, if it is subjected to an internal pressure of1.5 N/mm2 Take E = 2x105

N/mm2 and poison’s ratio =0.3. Also calculate change in volume. (16)

2. A closed cylindrical vessel made of steel plates 4 mm thick with plane ends, carries fluid under pressure of 3 N/mm2 The diameter of the cylinder is 25cm and length is 75 cm. Calculate the longitudinal and hoop stresses in the cylinder wall and determine the change in diameter, length and Volume of the cylinder. Take E =2.1x105 N/mm2 and 1/m = 0.286.

(16)

3. A rectangular block of material is subjected to a tensile stress of 110 N/mm2 on one plane and a tensile stress of 47 N/mm2 on the plane at right angle to the former plane and a tensile stress of 47 N/mm2 on the plane at right angle to the former. Each of the above stress is accompanied by a shear stress of 63 N/mm2 Find (i) The direction and magnitude of each of the principal stress (ii) Magnitude of greatest shear stress (16)

4. At a point in a strained material, the principal stresses are100 N/mm2 (T) and 40 N/mm2 (C). Determine the resultant stress in magnitude and direction in a plane inclined at 60° to the axis of major principal stress. What is the maximum intensity of shear stress in the material at the point? (16)

5. A rectangular block of material is subjected to a tensile stress of 210 N/mm2 on one plane and a tensilestress of 28 N/mm2 on the plane at right angle to the former. Each of the above stress is accompanied by a shear stress of 53 N/mm2 Find (i) The direction and magnitude of each of the principal stress (ii) Magnitude of greatest shear stress (16)

6 A closed cylindrical vessel made of steel plates 5 mm thick with plane ends, carries fluid under pressure of 6 N/mm2 The diameter of the cylinder is 35cm and length is 85 cm. Calculate the longitudinal and hoop stresses in the cylinder wall and determine the change in diameter, length and Volume of the cylinder. Take E =2.1x105 N/mm2 and 1/m = 0.286.

(16)

7. At a point in a strained material, the principal stresses are 200 N/mm2 (T) and 60 N/mm2 (C) Determine the direction and magnitude in a plane inclined at 600 to the axis of major principal stress. What is the maximum intensity of shear stress in the material at the point

(16)

8. At a point in a strained material, the principal stresses are 100 N/mm2 (T) and 40 N/mm2 (C) Determine the direction and magnitude in a plane inclined at 600 to the axis of major principal stress. What is the maximum intensity of shear stress in the material at the point

(16)

****************************

EE 2365 CONTROL ENGINEERING Questions 2014


Anna University, Chennai

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SRINIVASAN ENGINEERING COLLEGE, PERAMBALUR DEPT OF AERO

QUESTION BANK

SUBJECT CODE: EE 2365

SEM / YEAR: V/III

SUBJECT NAME: CONTROL ENGINEERING

PART – B (16 Marks)

1) With examples explain the concept of open loop and closed loop systems. Compare.(16)

2) Compare hydraulic systems with thermal systems. (16)

3) Compare electrical systems with mechanical systems (analogous). (16)

4) Compare open loop and closed loop systems. (16)

5) With a block diagram explain the concept of flight control systems. (16)

6) Write the differential equations governing the Mechanical system shown in fig .and determine the transfer function. (16)

7) Determine the transfer function Y2(S)/F(S) of the system shown in fig. (16)

8) Write the differential equations governing the Mechanical rotational system shown in fig.

Draw the Torque-voltage and Torque-current electrical analogous circuits. (16)

Note: Diagrams in these above referred problems are given separately. Only the type of the questions expected/asked in the previous year university end semester examinations are referred here


UNIT II

PART – B (16 Marks)

1. Determine the overall transfer function C(S)/R(S) for the system shown in fig. (16)

2. Obtain the closed loop transfer function C(S)/R(S) of the system whose block diagram is

shown in fig. (16)

3. For the system represented by the block diagram shown in fig. Determine C1/R1and C2/R1. (16)

4. Obtain the closed loop transfer function C(S)/R(S) of the system whose block diagram is

shown in fig. (16)

5. Find the overall gain of the system whose signal flow graph is shown in fig. (16)

6. Draw a signal flow graph and evaluate the closed loop transfer function of a system whose

block is shown in fig. (16)

Note: Diagrams in these above referred problems are given separately. Only the type of the questions expected/asked in the previous year university end semester examinations are referred here.


UNIT III

CHARACTERISTIC EQUATIONS AND FUNCTIONS PART – A (2 Marks)

1. What is time response?

It is the output of the closed loop system as a function of time. It is denoted by c(t).It is given by inverse of Laplace of product of input and transfer function of the system.

L

L

C (t) = -1

{(C(s)} = -1

{(R(s) G(s))/ (1+G(s) H(s))}

2. What is transient and steady state response?

The transient response is the response of the system when the input changes from one state to another. The response of the system at t=∞ is called steady state response

3. Name the test signals used in time response analysis.

Step signal, ramp signal, parabolic signal sinusoidal signal and impulse signal

4. Define step signal.

The step signal is a signal whose value changes from 0 to A and remains constant at A for t>0 The mathematical representation of step signal is r(t) = A u(t), where u(t) = 1 fort≥0 and u(t) =0 for t<0.

5. Define Ramp signal and parabolic signal.

A ramp signal is a signal whose value increases linearly with time from an initial value of zero at t=0. It is mathematically represented as r (t) = A t, where fort≥0 and r (t) =0 for t<0.

A parabolic signal is a signal in which the instantaneous value varies as square of the time from an initial value of zero at t=0.It is

2

mathematically represented as r (t) = A.t /2 for fort≥0 and r (t) =0 for t<0.

6. What is an impulse signal?

A signal which is available for very short duration is called impulse signal. Ideal impulse signal is a unit impulse signal which is defined as a signal having zero values at all-time except at t=0. At t=0, the magnitude becomes infinite.

7. How is system classified depending on the value of damping(ε)?

Undamped system (ε=0), under damped system (ε<1), critically damped system (ε=1) and over damped system (ε>1)

8. What is damped frequency of oscillation?

2

In under damped system, the response is damped oscillatory. The frequency of damed oscillation is given by wd=wn Sqrt of (1-ε ).

9. The closed-loop transfer function of second order system is C(S)/R(S) =10/ S2

+6S +10. What is the type of damping? Since ε<1, the system is under damped.

10. List the time domain specifications.

Delay time, rise time, peak time, and maximum over shoot and settling time.

11. Define rise time.

Rise time is the time taken for response tom raise from 0% to 100% for the very first time.

12. Define delay time..

Delay time is the time taken for response to reach 50% of the final value, for the very first time.

13. Define peak time.

It is the time taken for the response to reach the peak value for the very first time. It is the time taken for the response to reach the peak overshoot, Mp

14. What is steady state error?

The steady state error is the value of the error signal e (t), when (t) tends to infinity.

15. What are static error constants?

The Kp, Kv and Ka are called static error constants. The se constants are associated with steady state error in a particular type of a system and for a particular input.

16. What are generalized error constants?

They are the coefficients of generalized error series. They are also called as dynamic error coefficients.

17. List the advantages of generalized error constants.

Generalized error series gives error signal as a function of time. Using generalized error constants, the steady state error can be determined for any type of input. But static error constants are used to determine steady state error when the input is any one of the standard input.

PART B (16 Marks)

1. (a) Derive the expressions and draw the response of first order system for unit step input. (8) (b) Draw the response of second order system for critically damped case and when input is unit

step.

(8)

2. Derive the expressions for Rise time, Peak time, and Peak overshoot.

(16)

3. A potential control system with velocity feedback is shown in fig. What is the

 

Response of the system for unit step input?

(16)

4. Measurements conducted on a Servomechanism show the system response to be

 

c(t)=1+0.2 ê 60t-1.2 ê –10 t. when subjected to a unit step. Obtain an expression for closed loop

transfer function. (16)

5. A positional control system with velocity feedback is shown in fig. What is the

response c(t) to the unit step input. Given that ς =0.5.and also calculate rise time, peak time,

Maximum overshoot and settling time. (16)

6. A unity feedback control system has an open loop transfer function

G(S) = 10/S(S+2). Find the rise time, percentage over shoot, peak time and settling time. ( 16) 7. A closed loop servo is represented by the differential equation, where c is the

Displacement of the output shaft, r is the displacement of the input shaft and ( e= r-c) Determine undammed natural frequency, damping ratio and percentage maximum overshoot for unit step input. (16)

8. For a unity feedback control system the open loop transfer function

2

G(S) = 10(S+2)/ {S

(S+1)}. Find (a) position, velocity and acceleration error constants.

S

S

(b) The steady state error when the input is R(S) where R(S) =3/S –2/ 2

+1/3 3

(16)

9. The open loop transfer function of a servo system with unity feedback system is

G(S) = 10/ S (0.1S+1).Evaluate the static error constants of the system. Obtain the steady state

error of the system when subjected to an input given by the polynomial

2

r(t) = a0 +a1t +a2 /2 t

. (16)


PART – B (16 Marks)

1. Plot the Bode diagram for the following transfer function and obtain the gain and phase cross

over frequencies. G(S) = 10/ S(1+0.4S) (1+0.1S) (16)

2. The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is

G(S) = 1/ S(1+S)(1+2S) Sketch the Bode plot and determine the Gain margin and Phase margin. (16)

3. Sketch the Bode plot and hence find Gain cross over frequency, Phase cross over frequency,

Gain margin and Phase margin(S) = 0.75(1+0.2S)/ S (1+0.5S) (1+0.1S) (16)

4. Sketch the Bode plot and hence find Gain cross over frequency, Phase cross over frequency,

Gain margin and Phase margin. G(S) = 10(S+3)/ S(S+2) (S2+4S+100) (16)

5. Sketch the Bode plot for the following transfer function .and find Gain cross over frequency,

Phase cross over frequency, Gain margin and Phase margin.

G(S) = 10(S+2)(S+4)/ S (S2 -3S+10) (16)

6. Construct the Bode plot for the function GH(S) =2(S+1)/ S2. Find Gain cross over frequency,

Phase cross over frequency, Gain margin and Phase margin. (16)

7. Plot the Bode diagram for the following transfer function and obtain the gain and phase cross over frequencies. G(S) =KS2 / (1+0.2S) (1+0.02S). Determine the value of K for a gain cross over frequency of 20 rad/sec. (16)

8. Sketch the Bode plot and hence find Gain cross over frequency, Phase cross over frequency,

Gain margin and Phase margin. G(S) = 10(1+0.1S)/ S(1+0.01S) (1+S). (16)

9. Write the short notes on correlation between the time and frequency response? (16)

10. Using Routh criterion, determine the stability of the system whose Characteristics equation

4 3 2 1

is S

+8S +18S

+16 +5 =0. (16)

11. F(S)=S6 +S5-2S4-3S3-7S2-4S1-4 =0.Find the number of roots falling in the RHS plane and LHS

plane. (16)


UNIT V

SAMPLED DATA SYSTEMS PART – A (2 Marks)

1. What is sampled data control system?

When the input or information at any or some points in a system is in the form of discrete pulses, then the system is called discrete data system or sampled data control system.

2. Write the advantages and disadvantages of sampled data control system.

1) Systems are highly accurate, fast and flexible.

2) Use of time sharing concept in digital computers results in economic cost and space.

3) Digital transducers used in the system have better resolution.

4) The digital controllers are less affected by noise, non-linearity and transmission error of noisy channel.

3. State (Shanon’s) sampling theorem.

It states that a band limited continuous- time signal with highest frequency fm hertz, can be uniquely recovered from its samples provided that the sampling rate Fs is greater than or equal to (2fm) samples per second.

4. What is periodic sampling?

It is a sampling process in which the discrete- time signal or sequence is obtained by taking samples of continuous time signal periodically or uniformly at intervals of T seconds. Here T is called sampling period and (1/T) is called sampling frequency.

5. What are hold circuits?

Hold circuits are devices used to convert discrete time signals to continuous time signals.

6. What are the problems encountered in a practical hold circuits?

1) Errors in periodicity of sampling process.

2) Nonlinear variations in the duration of sampling aperture.

3) Droop (Changes) in the voltage held during conversions.

7. What are the methods available for the stability analysis of sampled data control system?

1) Jury’s stability test.

2) Bilinear transformation

3) Root locus technique.

8. What are the advantages of state space analysis?

1) It is applicable to any type of systems (linear/nonlinear/time variant/time invariant and multiple input & multiple output systems)

2) It can be performed with initial conditions.

3) The variables used to represent the system can be any variable in the system.

4) Using this analysis, the internal states of the system at any time instant can be predicted.

9. What is state and what are state variables?

The state is the condition of a system at any time instant (t). A set of variable which describes the state of the system at any time instant are called as state variables.

10. What is state diagram?

The pictorial representation of the state model of the system is called state diagram. The state diagram of the system can be either in block diagram or signal flow graph form.

PART B (16 Marks)

 

1. Compare analog control system with digital control systems.

(16)

2. Explain sampling theorem briefly and sample & hold operation.

(16)

3. Explain stability analysis of sampled control system and Jury’s stability.

(16)

4. Explain Digital controllers with a neat block diagram .

(16

5. Explain with a neat diagram digital PUID controllers.

(16)

********

AE1351 PROPULSION-II Two Marks Questions With Answers 2014


Anna University, Chennai

Anna_University,_Chennai_logo

SRINIVASAN ENGINEERING COLLEGE, PERAMBALUR DEPT OF AERO

AE1351 PROPULSION-II TWO MARKS QUESTIONS UNIT I

AIRCRAFT GAS TURBINES

1. Define stage efficiency.

The stage efficiency is defined as the ratio of work done in a stage to enthalpy drop in

stage.

2. Define reaction ratio.

Reaction ratio is defined as the ratio of static enthalpy drop across the rotor to static enthalpy drop across the stage.

3. What is the difference between impulse and reaction turbines?

• In impulse turbine, the fluid expanded completely in the nozzle and it remains at constant pressure during its passage through the moving blades. In reaction turbine, the fluid is only partially expanded in the nozzle and the remaining expansions take place in the rotor blades.

• The fluid velocity and blade speed for the reaction turbine are low as compared with those of an impulse turbine.

4. What are the requirements should be satisfied when the gas turbine is to be used as an aircraft power plant?

• Low weight

• Small frontal area.

5. Define work ratio.

It is the ratio of the actual total head temperature drop to the isentropic total head temperature drop from the total heat inlet to static head outlet.

6. Define total to static efficiency.

It is defined as the ration between the actual shaft work to the ideal shaft work between the total conditions at the entry and static conditions at exit

7. What are the functions of the gas turbine?

• Turbine is the part of the jet engine which is used to increase the kinetic energy of gases.

• It is used to operate the compressor.

8. What are the primary parts of the turbines?

• The stator nozzles

• The turbine rotor blades

9. What are the classifications of the turbines?

• An impulse stage

• A reaction stage

10. What is meant by impulse turbine stage?

An impulse turbine stage is characterized by the expansion of the gasses which occurs only in the stator nozzles. The rotor blades act as directional vanes to deflect the direction of the flow. Further they convert the kinetic energy of the gas into work changing the momentum of the gas more or less at constant pressure.

11. What is meant by reaction turbine?

A reaction turbine is one which the expansion gas takes place both in the stator and in the

rotor.

12. Define blade loading coefficient.

The blade loading coefficient is defined as the ratio of work done to square of blade velocity.

13. Define degree of reaction.

It is defined as the ratio of isentropic change of enthalpy in the rotor to isentropic change in enthalpy in the stage.

14. Define optimum speed ratio.

The optimum speed ratio is the ratio of velocity of the blade to velocity of gas. 15. Write short notes on external cooling for turbine blades.

The external surface of the gas turbine blade is cooled by making use of compressed air from the compressor. The quantity of the air required for the purpose is from 1 to 3% of main flow entering the turbine stage by which blade metal temperature can be reduced by about 200 –

300 degrees.

16. Explain internal cooling method adopted for gas turbine blades?

Internal cooling of blades is achieved by passing air or liquid through internal cooling passages from hub towards the blade tip. The internal passages may be circular or elliptical. The cooling of the blades is achieved by conduction and convection.

17. What are the disadvantages of liquid cooling?

• This system is complex.

• Water is circulated at high pressure above its vapour pressure.

• It is impossible to eliminate formation of deposits.

18. Write short notes on air cooling adopted in turbine blades.

In this method, the air is bled from the high pressure end of the compressor and delivered to the blades and vanes to be cooled. Quantity of the coolant required to about 1 to 3 % of engine air flow per turbine blade row.

19. What are the assumptions made while eliminating the flow through the stage?

• Flow conditions evaluated at the mean radius.

• Blade height / mean radius is small, allowing two dimensional flow theory to be used.

• 3. Radial velocities are zero.

20. Define blade efficiency.

It is defined as the ratio of work done per unit mass flow to work available per unit mass

flow.

21. Define total to total efficiency.

Total to total efficiency is the ratio of actual work done by the gas to isentropic work

done.

.

UNIT II RAMJET PROPULSION

1. Briefly explain scramjet engine?

A scramjet is a variant of a ramjet air breathing jet engine in which combustion takes place in supersonic airflow.

2. Define thrust.

Thrust is a force which propels the engine in to the forward direction. Unit for thrust is

Newton.

3. Define specific impulse.

It is defined as the ratio of thrust to weight flow rate of air-fuel mixture. Unit for the specific impulse is seconds.

4. What is the function of nozzle?

The function of the nozzle is to convert the pressure energy of the fluid into kinetic

energy.

5. What is Mach number?

Mach number is defined as the ratio of velocity of fluid to velocity of sound.

6. What are the burners used in the ramjet engine?

• Can type burner

• Baffle type burner

7. What is meant by ram effect?

The function of the diffuser is to convert the kinetic energy of the entering air into pressure energy. This energy transformation is called ram effect.

8. What are the assumptions made for calculate the ideal efficiency of the ramjet engine?

• Steady flow

• One dimensional flow

• Isentropic compression and expansion

• Gas is perfect

• Heat added at constant pressure

• Very low Mach number in the combustion chamber.

9. Why ramjet engine does not require a compressor and a turbine?

In ramjet engine, due to subsonic and supersonic diffuser, the static pressure of the air is increased to ignition pressure. So there is no need of compressor and turbine.

10. Define propulsive efficiency of ramjet engine.

The propulsive efficiency of ramjet engine is defined as the ratio of thrust power to power output.

11. Define combustion efficiency.

The combustion efficiency is defined as the ratio of enthalpy rise of air to heat supplied to

it.

12. Define diffuser efficiency.

Diffuser efficiency is defined as the ratio of actual pressure rise to ideal pressure rise.

13. What are the advantages of ramjet engine?

• Ramjet engine is very simple and does not have any moving part.

• Cost is low.

• Less maintenance.

• There is no upper limit for flight speed.

• Light weight when compared to turbojet engine.

14. What are the disadvantages of ramjet engine?

• Since the takeoff thrust is zero, it is not possible to start a ramjet engine without an external launching device.

• The combustor required flame holder to stabilize the combustion due to high speed of air.

• It has low thermal efficiency.

• It is very difficult to design a diffuser which will give good pressure recovery over a wide range of speeds.

15. What are the applications of ramjet engine?

• It is widely used in high speed aircrafts and missiles due to its high thrust and high operational speed.

• Subsonic ramjets are used in target weapons.

16. Explain critical inlet mode operation.

When the inlet can accept the mass flow of air required positioning the terminal shock just inside the cowl lip. This is called critical inlet operation.

17. What is subcritical operation?

When the inlet is not matched to the engine, the normal shock moves upstream. This is called as subcritical operation.

18. What is super critical operation?

When the inlet cannot capture the mass flow required by the engine, the terminal shock is sucked into the diffuser. This is called super critical operation.

19. What are the factors to be considered to select the fuel for ramjet engine?

• The calorific value of fuel

• The case with which it can be ignited

• Its physical properties

• Its storage ability

• Toxicity

• Corrosiveness

20. What are the factors affecting the combustion process?

• The burner geometry

• Physical and chemical characteristics of fuel

• The air fuel ratio

• The velocity of working fluid

1. Define IWR?

UNIT III

FUNDAMENTALS OF ROCKET PROPULSION

The ratio of total impulse of the rocket to total weight of the rocket is called as impulse weight ratio.

2. Explain the performance of the rocket engine.

In rocket engine, if the speed is increased, the propulsive efficiency is increased and reaches the maximum value of one. Then propulsive efficiency is decreased with increase in speed ratio.

3. What is thrust coefficient?

It is the ratio of the thrust to the throat force.

4. Define specific propellant consumption.

The propellant consumption rate per thrust is called as specific propellant consumption.

5. Define altitude.

The height of the rocket engine from the sea level is called as altitude. 6. What is the advantage of bell nozzle over conical nozzle?

The bell nozzle has 20 % less than the length that would be required for a conical nozzle.

7. What is internal ballistics?

The rocket motor’s operation and design depend on the combustion characteristics of propellant, its burning rate, burning surface, and grain geometry. The branch of science describing these is known as internal ballistics.

8. Define characteristic velocity.

It is the ratio of jet velocity to thrust coefficient.

9. Define overall efficiency.

Overall efficiency is defined as the ratio of thrust power to heat supplied by the propellant.

10. Define thermal efficiency.

Thermal efficiency is the ratio of power developed by the engine to heat supplied by the propellant.

11. Define effective jet velocity.

The effective jet velocity is the ratio of thrust to mass flow rate of propellant. 12. Write short notes on aero spike nozzle.

The aero spike nozzle has common plug at its centre. The small combustion chambers arranged in a circle around a common plug. The gasses coming out from the chambers flow through the divergent section of the nozzle where they are expanded.

13. State the comparison between jet engines and rocket engines.

In the jet engines, oxygen obtained from the surrounding atmosphere for combustion process. In the rocket engines, the propulsion unit consists of own oxygen supply for combustion purpose.

14. What are the classifications of rocket engine? Rocket engine classified as follows:

• Chemical rocket engines

• Nuclear rocket engines

• Electrical rocket engines

• Solar rocket engines

15. What is under expanded nozzle?

It is a nozzle which discharges fluid at exit pressure greater than external pressure, because the exit area is too small.

16. What is over expanded nozzle?

It is a nozzle which discharges fluid at exit pressure lower than external pressure, because the exit area is too large.

17. What are the advantages of conical nozzle?

• It has simple configuration

• It is relatively easy to fabricate.

18. Define effective speed ratio.

It is the ratio of speed of flight to velocity of jet.

19. In rocket engine, how the propulsive efficiency varies with respect to speed ratio?

In rocket engine, if the speed ratio is increased, the propulsive efficiency is also increased and reaches maximum value when the speed ratio is unity. After that, the propulsive efficiency is decreased with increase in speed ratio.

20. What is weight flow ratio?

It is the ratio of propellant flow rate to the throat force.

UNIT IV CHEMICAL ROCKETS

1. What are the disadvantages of liquid propellant rocket engine?

• Manufacturing cost is high.

• High vibration

• The size and weight of the engine is more compared to solid propellant rocket.

2. What are the types of propellant feed system?

• Gas pressure feed system

• Pump feed system

3. What are the basic combustion processes?

• Injection

• Atomization

• Mixing

• Ignition

• Chemical reaction between fuel and oxidizer.

4. What are the advantages of solid propellant rocket engine?

• Simple in design and construction

• Less vibration due to absence of moving parts

• Less maintenance

5. What are the disadvantages of solid propellant rocket engine?

• It is difficult to stop the engine

• Low specific impulse

• Decrease of speed is not possible

6. What is the limitation of hybrid rocket engine?

In the hybrid rocket engine, the nozzle erosion cannot be avoided.

7. What are the advantages of hybrid rocket engine?

• Speed regulation is possible by regulating the supply of oxidizer

• High load capacity

• High fuel density

• Lighter compared to liquid propellant rockets

8. What is the use of strand burner?

Strand burner is used to measure the burning rate of the solid propellant.

9. What is cold gas propellant?

A cold gas propellant is stored at very high pressure gives a low performance allows a simple system and is usually very reliable. It has been used for roll control and altitude control.

10. What is gelled propellant?

A gelled propellant is a thixotropic liquid with a gelling additive. It behaves like a jelly or thick paint. It will not spill or leak. Readily can burn flow under pressure will burn and is safer in some respects.

11. Define Mixture ratio.

The propellant mixture ratio for a bipropellant is the ratio at which the oxidizer and fuel are mixed and react to give hot gases.

12. Define heterogeneous propellants.

In heterogeneous propellants solid propellants plastics, polymers and polyvinylchloride are used as fuels. Nitrates and perchlorates are used as oxidizer.

13. Define homogenous propellants.

In homogenous propellants solid propellants nitroglycerine and nitrocellulose are used. It combines the properties of fuels and oxidizer.

14. Define burning rate.

The velocity at which a solid propellant is consumed during operation is called the burning rate.

15. What is monopropellant?

A liquid propellant which contains both the fuel and oxidizer in a single chemical is known as monopropellant.

16. What is bipropellant?

If the fuel and oxidizer are different from each other in its chemical

1nature then the propellant is called bipropellant.

17. Classify the rocket engine based on source of energy employed? Rocket engine can be classified as

• chemical rocket engine

• solar rocket engine

• nuclear rocket engine

• Electrical rocket engine.

18. What are the factors increase the burning rate?

• Combustion chamber pressure

• Initial temperature of the solid propellant prior to operation

• Combustion gas temperature

• Velocity of gas flow parallel to the burning surface

• Motor motion

19. What are the components of liquid propellant rocket engine?

• Tanks for storing liquid fuel and oxygen

• Preheater

• Combustion chamber and nozzle

20. What the conditions of maximum propulsive efficiency?

The jet velocity must be twice more than the free stream velocity for which the propulsive efficiency is 66.7%.

UNIT V

ADVANCED PROPULSION TECHNIQUES

1. What are the disadvantages of pulsed plasma electrical propulsion system?

• Low thrust

• Teflon reaction products are toxic

• Corrosive

2. What are the advantages of steady state plasma electromagnetic propulsion system?

• Can be relatively simple

• High specific impulse

• High thrust per unit area

3. What are the disadvantages of steady state plasma electromagnetic propulsion system?

• Difficult to stimulate analytically

• High specific power

• Heavy power supply

4. What are the advantages of Hall thruster?

• Desirable Isp range

• Compact relatively simple power conditioning

• Inert propellant

5. What are the disadvantages of Hall thruster?

• Single propellant

• High beam divergence

• Erosion.

6. What are the requirements for solar sail powered spacecraft?

• Continuous force exerted by sunlight

• A large ultrathin mirror

• A separate launch vehicle.

7. What are the types of electrical rocket engines?

• Arc plasma rocket engine

• Ion rocket engine

• Magneto- plasma rocket engine.

8. What are the components in Arc plasma rocket engine?

• Propellant tank

• Combustion chamber

• Cooling system

• Electric power supply.

9. What are the components in Magneto- plasma rocket engine?

• Propellant tank

• Propellant pump

• Thrust chamber

• Accelerator.

10. What are the components in Ion rocket engine?

• Propellant tank

• Thrust chamber

• Electric power supply

• Vapourizing chamber.

11. Write down three fuel – oxidizer combination for hybrid propellant rockets?

• Beryllium hydride – Fluorine

• Lithium hydride – chlorine trifluoride

• Hydrocarbon – Nitrogen tetroxide

• Lithium hydride – Nitrogen tetroxide

12. What are the advantages of hybrid propellant rockets engine?

• Speed regulation is possible by regulating the supply of oxidizer.

• High load capacity.

• Hybrid rockets are lighter when compared to the liquid propellant type rocket.

• Higher fuel density.

13. What are the methods for ion generation?

There are three methods for ion generation. They are

• Surface contact

• Electron bombardment and

• Electric arc.

14. What are the advantages of electrical propulsion system?

• Simple device and easy to control

• Simple power containing

• Low cost and relatively high thrust and efficiency

• Can use many propellants including hydrazine augmentation.

15. What are the disadvantages of electrical propulsion system?

• Lowest Isp, , heat loss

• Dissociation of gas

• Indirect of heating of gas and erosion.

16. What are the advantages of arc jet propulsion system?

• Direct heating of gas.

• Low voltage

• Relatively simple device and high thrust.

• Can use catalytic hydrazine augmentation inert propellant.

17. What are the disadvantages of arc jet propulsion system?

• Low efficiency

• Erosion at high power and low specific impulse

• High current, heavy wiring, heat loss

• More complex power conditioning.

18. What are the advantages of ion jet propulsion system?

• High specific impulse

• High efficiency

• Inert propellant.

19. What are the disadvantages of ion jet propulsion system?

• Complex power conditioning and heavy power supply

• High voltage, single propellant only

• Low thrust per unit area.

20. What are the advantages of pulsed plasma electrical propulsion system?

• Simple device and low power.

• Because of solid propellants, no need of gas or liquid feed system and there is no zero gravity effects on propellants.

IT1401- Web Technology Questions Bank 2014


Anna University, Chennai

Anna_University,_Chennai_logo

SRINIVASAN ENGINEERING COLLEGE PERAMBALUR-621212

DEPARTMENT OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

QUESTION BANK

SUB.CODE / NAME : IT1401- Web Technology

YEAR / SEM : IV / VII

1. Define www and Internet.

2. List the features of JavaScript..

3. Define protocol.

UNIT – I INTRODUCTION PART –A

4. List out some common protocol used in mail services.

5. Define MIME headers.

6. Give short notes on IMAP.

7. Define HTTP.

8. List out the various Escape sequences available in java script.

9. Define user agent.

10. Give an example for compound assignment operator.

11. Differentiate between Recursion and Iteration.

12. Define function with example.

13. Which statement is used to display content on webpage?

14. Define cookies.

15. Write a program in JavaScript to read and display your name in the webpage.

16. Define object in JavaScript with example.

17. Define arrays with example.

PART – B

with single statement.

(08)

b) Write a java script program for alert dialog box displaying multiple lines.

(08)

2. a) Write a program in java script to convert number bases.

(08)

b) Write a program in java script to find maximum of 3 numbers using standard math Function.

4. a) Write a program in java script to calculate factorial using recursive function.

(08)

b) Write program in java script to sort an array.

(08)

5. Write a program in java script to perform sorting in an array.

(08)

6. Explain: i) Document object ii) Window object

(08+ 08)

7. Develop a welcome page using various JavaScript concepts.

(16)

8. Define Protocol. Explain the importance of HTTP and FTP protocols.

(16)

9. Explain in detail about SMTP and IMAP protocols.

(16)

10. Explain in detail about POP3 and MIME protocols.

(16)

1. a) Write a simple program in JavaScript to print multiple line of text in a web page with a Program

1. Define Dynamic HTML (DHTML).

DYNAMIC HTML

PART –A

2. Differentiate between collection all object and collection children object.

3. Give short notes on navigator object.

4. Write a note on DHTML Object Model.

5. Define Event Model.

6. Define Event Bubbling.

7. Give the use of onload and onclick event with example.

8. List out the keyboard events available in DHTML.

9. How errors are handled in DHTML?

10. Write a short note on Filters and also mention its types.

11. Define Transitions.

12. Differentiate between Mask Filter and Blur Filter.

13. List out the styles created during different transitions from opaque to transparent.

14. Give the use of offx and offy properties of Dropshadow.

15. Differentiate Apply and Play methods in Transition.

16. List the possible opacity attributes of the alpha filter.

17. Define Data Binding.

18. Give short note on sort property of ActiveX control.

19. List out the Data Binding Elements.

20. Which statement is used to bind an image and table in webpage? Give an example for it.

21. List out the Mouse events available in DHTML.

22. Define Error handling in DHTML.

PART – B

1. a) Write a program in java script for dynamic positioning of text in the page. (08)

frames.

(08)

2. a) Write a program in JavaScript to indirect the users using the navigator object.

(08)

b) Write a program in java script for on-click event.

(08)

3. Explain DOM.

(16)

4. a) Write a program in JavaScript to handle on-focus and onblur events.

(08)

b) Explain data binding with example.

(08)

5. Explain event bubbling with examples.

(16)

6. Explain image filters in detail with examples.

(16)

7. Explain advanced filters in detail.

(16)

8. a) Write a program in java script to bind a data to a table element.

(08)

b) Write a program in java script to sort data in table.

(08)

b) Write a program in java script to create multiple frames and also access the object in other

MULTIMEDIA

PART –A

1. Write a short note on get method and post method.

2. Define Electronic commerce.

3. Differentiate between client side scripting and server side scripting.

4. How will you access the local server?

5. Define DNS Lookup.

6. List out functions of web server.

7. Define Microsoft agent control.

8. Write a short note on bgsound element and also give an example for it.

9. Define SMIL.

10. Define WTLS.

11. Define SSL.

12. What is consumer tracking?

13. Write a short note on embed element and also give an example for it

14. Define multimedia.

15. Mention the necessity of key management schemes.

16. What is micro payment?

17. Define IPSec.

18. List out the various security attacks in network.

19. What is branding?

20. Define SVG.

21. Define cryptanalysis.

22. Define IIS.

1. Explain IIS in detail.

(16)

2. Explain in detail about Apache Web server.

(16)

3. Write a program in JavaScript to play a video file with IMG element.

(16)

4. Write a program in JavaScript to embed audio/video file with embed element.

(16)

5. Explain in detail about SMIL.

(16)

6. Explain in detail about SVG.

(16)

7. Explain Multitier Application Model.

(16)

8. Explain the HTTP request types with an example.

(16)

9. Explain briefly about the models of E-business in detail.

(16)

10. Explain: i) Credit card payment ii) Micro payment

(08 + 08)

11. Explain the various E-Business models.

(16)

12. Explain briefly about the E-marketing strategies in detail.

(16)

PART – B

1. List out the uses of XML.

DATABASE- ASP – XML

PART –A

2. Mention the features of scripting languages.

3. Define DTD.

4. Differentiate Internal DTD and External DTD with eg.

5. What is XML prolog?

6. List out the XML vocabularies.

7. Differentiate URI and URL.

8. Define XML parser.

9. What is meant by XML namespace?

10. Define XSLT.

11. Define CSS.

12. Mention the advantage of using validating parser over non validating parser.

13. Define DOM.

14. Write a short note on DBMS.

15. Define relational database model.

16. Give the use of primary key in database with eg.

17. Give the syntax for merging data from multiple tables.

18. What is session tracking?

19. What is the purpose of using file system objects in ASP?

20. What is meant by Server side ActiveX component?

21. Define ADO.

22. What is meant by Session object?

1. a) Explain SQL features with eg.

(08)

b) Explain XML Namespace with an example.

(08)

2. Describe in detail about DTD and XML Schema.

(16)

3. Explain the various XML vocabularies with example.

(16)

4. Explain DOM and its methods with an example.

(16)

5. Explain Server side ActiveX Component in detail with eg.

(16)

6. Explain the following: i) ASP objects. ii) File System objects.

(08 + 08)

7. Explain in detail about how to access a database using ASP with example.

(16)

8. a) Explain Session tracking and Cookies.

(08)

b) Explain ADO in detail.

(08)

PART - B

SERVLETS AND JSP

PART –A

1. List out advantages of using server side scripting.

2. Compare ASP and JSP.

3. Define CGI.

4. Give the syntax of doPost and doGet methods.

5. Give reasons for using javax.servlet package.

6. Write a servlet program to display a hello world message.

7. What are the key components of a JSP?

8. What is the usage of JSP page directive?

9. Define Include Directive.

10. Mention the purpose of Init() and destroy() functions.

11. Differentiate implements and extends variables.

12. What is meant by implicit objects?

13. What is meant by standard actions>

14. Give reasons for using directives and also list its types.

15. Differentiate include action and forward action.

16. Why do we need connection pools in jdbc?

17. Define dynamic JSP?

18. What is page translation in JSP?

19. What are the four broad categories of core syntax elements defined by the JSP specification?

20. Define the term translation-time processing errors in JSP?

21. What is JSP scriptlets?

22. Difference between two-tier and n-tier model

23. What is Servlets?

1. a) Explain Servlet Life cycle.

(08)

b) Write a program in JavaScript to use JDBC from a Servlet.

(08)

2. Write a program in JavaScript to handle HTTP get and post requests.

(16)

3. Explain various scripting components in JSP with an example.

(16)

4. Explain the various Standard actions in detail.

(16)

5. Describe in detail about the types of Directives.

(16)

6. List and explain the Multitier Applications in detail.

(16)

7. Write a program in JavaScript to handle the redirection of HTTP requests.

(16)

PART -B